I agree that common law is established by case law,
No. Case law and precedent is just one part of it. The elements of the common law in play here are long and ancient custom and user and the royal prerogative. That if it has been done for long enough there is a right to continue doing it, plus the King's protection of the rights to freely navigate the great rivers without let, hindrance or obstruction.
but this is overruled by any statutes that exist.
Yes, statute can overrule common law based on long user and statute.
That isn't applicable here tho, as the argument isn't that the common law has been over ruled.
Per contra, the canoe lobby's argument is that the common law establishes a universal general right of navigation over all physically navigable waters and that it hasn't been repealed or over ruled by any subsequent statute.
The argument for the right to navigate is based on statutes,
Terminologically inexact, fudged and wrong.
The general right to navigate claimed is based on common law, see above.
The right to navigate where there is a statute providing for such a right in or on a particular water, canal or complex of waterways is certainly based on statute, but that statute is confined to those specified waterways and purposes.
Neither is it a General right of navigation, it is a particular right of navigation.
therefore they can not be overruled by common law, there must be a statute that removed the right to navigate, otherwise it still exists.
Yes, but you are begging the question.
There is no argument about the historical great rivers, there plainly was and is a general right to navigation at common law which continues to subsist, subject to any local statutes.
You / the lobby are however asserting a much larger general right of navigation on
all waters. Either there is or isn't such a wider common law right. If there isn't - which seems to me plain - then you don't need a statute to remove that which never existed in the first place.
The Acts that confirm the right to navigate are the Act for Wears and Fishgarths 1472, and virtually every Navigation Act passed after that date up until the 19th century confirms the right to navigate existed.
No, no and nope. Go read them.
As you say trespass is a common law offence, if the permission exists and/or rivers are not private property then no offence has been committed.
The General right of navigation exists on the great rivers under the King's prerogative protection and has plainly done so since time immemorial.
It doesn't exist on any other waters unless granted by statute.
Rivers plainly are private property, and trespass is committed unless a general right of navigation exists to rebutt any trespass.
All I am asking for is an explanation of how and when the permission was removed, case law can not be used to prove this.
I can't cite you a law that removed something that never existed. You assume it exists when it didn't, doesn't and never has.
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If I have a right to navigate I will not be trespassing.
Correct
Thinking I may have a right is not enough for me. I would like a clear answer based on the law.
You have a clear right to paddle on any and all of those waters which are subject to an historical common law General right of Navigation and those waters where such a right or equivalent has been granted by statute.
Anywhere else, you are trespassing.